Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 02:36
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Has any man licked his wife's vagina while another man had sex with her?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Have you ever had a scary dream about a loved one or friend soon after their death?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Anycubic has yet another sale happening, and the 3D printer I own is $200 off - Creative Bloq
What's (not “whats”) the rule?